Tuesday, May 23, 2006

Authority and the end of the Law

Reading J. Denny Weaver's "The Non-violent Atonement." Some interesting exegesis. He tries to explain the atonement in terms of Christ's life, death, resurrection (as am I, except including the ascension) and calls his work a narrative Christus Victor. This narrative is non-violent from God's perspective. (I remain confused as to how he escapes the sacrificial nature of Christ's death in Paul. Seems to try to "hige it in plain sight" but never succeeds.) Anyway, he says, correctly I think, that in Christ the law is judged and its power is brought to its end. Paul says as much: Christ accomplishes what the law is powerless to do: that we might meet righteous requirements and live by the Spirit (Rom. 8). However, to rule against the law is only possible for God. No one can rule against the law but him. And what rules against the law but the death and resurrection of Christ: the resurrection rules against death, the sting of which is sin, which is the power of the law (1 Cor. 15). The end (telos) of the law, for those who live by the flesh, is death. So, in condemning Jesus to die, Pilate is playing out the end of the law: Sin has put Israel in the position where their Messiah suffers as he does. This is the gateway to the resurrection which shows God's judgment against death in the judgment of his Son. Yet this death, which Pilate enacts, cannot judge the law except that authority is given to him from above (John 19:11). In acting as he does, then, with higher authority, he unwittingly takes a higher role: the vehicle through which God condemns the law in the death of his Son.

Seems to me that if God gives Pilate the authority to condemn God's Christ, and remarkably uses this death to condemn the law, then God is necessarily imlicated in the violence of the cross.

15 Comments:

Anonymous Anonymous said...

Hi, AP,

I have a question:

How or in what way(s) is God "implicated" in the death of Jesus? Certainly, not in the same way as Pilate, right? Or God is not implicated in the world the same way humans are. It matters greatly how we construe this implication.

Also, I am concerned this abolishing of the law comes across as a law and gospel dialectic where law and Jesus (or Spirit) are pitted over against each other or are inherently in tension instead of Jesus fulfilling the law.

5/23/2006 12:12:00 PM  
Blogger Aaron Perry said...

Hey Tim,

It is sin that pits Jesus against the law. That concern cannot be shaken. But the law is and remains good, if powerless, thing. If sin is destroyed, then the law is fulfilled and acceded because the story of redemption continues; it has not been stopped by sin.

God the Father is implicated because he remains an actor, moreover, a determined and intentional actor!, in the death of his Son. But God has only acted in the world as humans do in one particular human.

5/23/2006 12:18:00 PM  
Blogger Aaron Perry said...

that should say "succeeded," not acceded.

5/23/2006 12:20:00 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

Okay, I think I understand you on the law now.

I still want to be cautious about how we speak about Jesus and God acting in the world. Jesus is the God-Man, not the Father, so perhaps Jesus is implicated in the violence as the one who is being acted upon, but how would you say the Father is implicated? In other words, your last sentence uses "God" instead of Father or Son; do you mean Son here? I would say this: The Father has acted through the humanity of the Son in the world in the same way as humans. However, his divinity remains neither separate or confused nor in tension with his humanity. So, Christ's divinity is not active in the same way that humans act in the world.

What do you think about this way of stating it?

5/23/2006 02:11:00 PM  
Blogger Aaron Perry said...

The Father is implicated because he gives authority to Pilate. The Father says that in that act the law is condemned. For Pilate he may only have been intending to crucify a criminal; the Father used that act, via the authority he gave, to condem the law.

Re: God acting in humans in one human in particular: I mean God, and then in fleshing it out, I say the Son. I prefer to say that God has acted through Jesus than to say that the Father has acted through the humanity of the Son, which I don't quite understand. Through the incarnate Son, God acts in humanity.

You say that there is no tension between Christ's divinity and his humanity, yet you say that Christ's divinity is not active like his humanity is. This seems to me a perfect example of tension! :)

I prefer simply to leave it as a paradox: As Jesus, God does things. As Jesus, Jesus does things. Or as God, Jesus does things; and as human, Jesus does those same things.

5/23/2006 02:58:00 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

Where is Cyril of Alexandria when we need him?

1 Person. 2 natures. Natures do not act. Persons act. The actions of Jesus are the actions of the incarnate God.

The incarnate God hungered. The incarnate God became angry. The incarnate God died. The incarnate God was raised. The incarnate God ascended. The incarnate God reigns.

SGFMB

5/23/2006 03:55:00 PM  
Blogger Aaron Perry said...

By saying, "The actions of Jesus are the actions of the incarnate God" you captured much more accurately what I was after when I wrote what I did.

Jesus does things.
Jesus is God.
Therefore, When Jesus does things, God does things.

5/23/2006 05:28:00 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

Thanks some guy, I was just about to raise this issue. My concern, AP, is that in speaking of "the incarnate God" we end up confusing our speech about God and humanity.

I can see how my previous comments could be taken to say the natures are in tension. I was only trying speak about the difference between the natures and this difference it seems to me means they "act" differently. In other words, the word "act" cannot be univocal in speaking about God and humanity. This doesn't pit them against each other, but we must remember this when speaking about them.

5/23/2006 05:29:00 PM  
Blogger John David Walt said...

wwjps. . . . . .

5/23/2006 10:37:00 PM  
Blogger Aaron Perry said...

i have no problem with saying that God acts differently in the world than people do, except in Jesus of Nazareth. but i see no reason to stop using the word "act" of God, even though i didn't in the original post. (in fact, it was you who originally used it!)

i am confused by "...in speaking of 'the incarnate God' we end up confusing our speech about God and humanity." what do you mean by this? example? is it a concern in the original post? if yes, where?

5/24/2006 08:57:00 AM  
Blogger Aaron Perry said...

JD: wwjps?

5/24/2006 08:58:00 AM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

The more I think about it, the more I think I am confused. As long as we are saying God acted in Jesus Christ everything should be fine. If we want to move beyond this and speak of God's relationship with humanity then we would have to attend to the 2 natures.

My overall concern was that you were implying God was committing violent acts in the same way humans did when you said God is implicated in the violence of the cross. But, I don't think you are saying this.

5/24/2006 09:09:00 AM  
Blogger John David Walt said...

come on ap--- i was hoping at least for some guesses. . . . . but since not. wwjps = what would john piper say?

5/24/2006 05:07:00 PM  
Blogger Aaron Perry said...

ha! what came to mind was John Paul (which, I suppose he'd REALLY know now).

i'll pick up on the appropriate guessing times from now on...promise!

twaps....

5/24/2006 08:46:00 PM  
Anonymous Anonymous said...

Given that the JP you thought of was JOhn Paul, John Piper would say you are not going to heaven. His heaven, anyway.

You are on the outs with the egalitarians, open theists, and Clark Pinnock (who is both and therefore doubly damned).

Get ready to gnash those teeth!

SGFMB

5/24/2006 11:50:00 PM  

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